TQ Quiz | Clinical Grand Rounds in Optic Neuropathies: “You’ve Got Some Nerve!” (Scottsdale 2025)

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1. What term refers to edema of the optic disc, specifically resulting from elevated intracranial pressure?*

A. Papilledema

B. Optic atrophy

C. Infectious optic neuropathy

D. Optic disc drusen

2. In papilledema, what parts of the optic nerve are affected first?*

A. Nasal and temporal

B. Superior and temporal

C. Superior and inferior

D. Nasal and inferior

3. What is an early visual field defect in papilledema?*

A. Nasal step

B. Peripheral constriction

C. Enlarged blind spot

D. Arcuate defect

4. What is a late visual field defect in papilledema?*

A. Nasal step

B. Peripheral constriction and arcuate defect

C. Enlarged blind spot

D. Hemianopsia

5. Which of the following is not a typical symptom of papilledema?*

A. Headache

B. Transient visual obscurations

C. Horizontal diplopia

D. Eye pain

6. How many types of papilledema are recognized?*

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

7. Which of the following is not a typical sign associated with papilledema?*

A. Obliteration of optic cup

B. Hemorrhages

C. Presence of spontaneous venous pulsation (SVP)

D. Paton’s folds

8. In diagnosing pseudotumor cerebri (PTC) in adults, what must the opening lumbar pressure be above?*

A. 150 mm

B. 180 mm

C. 200 mm

D. 250 mm

9. In diagnosing pseudotumor cerebri (PTC) in a non-obese, non-sedated child, what must the opening lumbar pressure be above?*

A. 150 mm

B. 280 mm

C. 200 mm

D. 250 mm

10. Which of the following medications is not used to manage pseudotumor cerebri?*

A. Acetazolamide

B. Furosemide

C. Blephamide

D. Zonisamide

11. What surgical procedure is recommended to reduce morbidity in patients with severe vision loss from pseudotumor cerebri?*

A. Optic nerve sheath decompression

B. Trabeculectomy

C. Phacoemulsification

D. Ahmed drainage implant

12. What condition presents with a hyperemic swollen disc and a disc at risk?*

A. Papilledema

B. Non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy (NAAION)

C. Arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (AAION)

D. Infiltrative optic neuropathy

13. What symptom is present in 90% of patients with giant cell arteritis and arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy?*

A. Jaw claudication

B. Weight loss

C. Arthralgia

D. Headache

14. Bilateral temporal disc pallor is most associated with what cause?*

A. Brain tumor

B. Orbital tumor

C. Toxic/ nutritional issues

D. Glaucoma

15. Neuroretinitis and positive testing for bartonella point to what disease?*

A. Cat scratch disease

B. Syphilis

C. Toxoplasmosis

D. AIDS

16. Which of the following is a steroid-sparing medication used in treating giant cell arteritis and arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy?*

A. Tapezza (teprotumumab)

B. Actemra (tocilizumab)

C. Humira (adalimumab)

D. Ozempic (semaglutide)

17. Trauma and compression (e.g. tumor) cause what type of optic atrophy?*

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Consecutive

18. What is the most common cause of compressive optic neuropathy?*

A. Pituitary adenoma

B. Craniopharyngioma

C. Optic nerve sheath meningioma

D. Infiltrated extraocular muscles (Graves’ ophthalmopathy) in thyroid disease

19. For patient with optic neuritis in the Optic Neuritis Treatment Trial (ONTT), of those that had a normal MRI at baseline and no clinical definite multiple sclerosis (CDMS) at 10 years, what would the risk be of developing multiple sclerosis at 15 years?*

A. 2%

B. 17%

C. 32%

D. 57%

20. What condition involves optic neuritis and transverse myelitis?*

A. Multiple sclerosis

B. Myelin oligodendrocyte glycoprotein antibody associated disease (MOGAD)

C. Neuromyelitis Optica Syndrome Disorder (NMOSD)

D. Infectious optic neuropathy

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