TQ Quiz | Candid Conversations: Ocular Surface Disease (Scottsdale 2025)

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1. There are approximately _________ patients with dry eye disease (DED) in the United States, yet half are undiagnosed.*

A. 10 Million

B. 20 Million

C. 30 Million

D. 40 Million

2. What is the highest score possible on the Standardized Patient Evaluation of Eye Dryness (SPEED) questionnaire?*

A. 8

B. 18

C. 28

D. 38

3. According to Yu et al., what is the average annual cost of managing a dry eye patient from a payer’s perspective?*

A. $383

B. $583

C. $683

D. $783

4. All of the following are included in the TFOS DEWS II definition of dry eye except:*

A. Hypertonicity

B. Hyperosmolarity

C. Inflammation

D. Neurosensory abnormalities

5. According to Machalińska A, et al., what percentage of contact lens wearers have MGD?*

A. 30%

B. 40%

C. 50%

D. 60%

6. Using corneal topography, all of the following signs can be used to detect ocular surface disease except?*

A. Hot spots

B. Irregular placido rings

C. K measurements

D. Angle kappa

7. Which ocular surface biomarker or diagnostic test has the highest positive predictive value?*

A. Schirmers

B. MMP-9

C. Tear osmolarity

D. Tear film break up time

8. According to Epitropolous et al, increased _______ can lead to errors in IOL calculations.*

A. Osmolarity

B. Schirmers

C. MMP-9

D. Meibography

9. All of the following are indications for Epi-Mapping except _____________?*

A. Refractive Surgery

B. Keratoconus

C. Dry Eye Disease

D. Fuchs Corneal Dystrophy

10. Which of the following is NOT a point of care test used for dry eye disease?*

A. Dynamic meibomian gland imaging

B. Corneal topography

C. Anterior segment optical coherence tomography

D. Sjogren biomarker test

11. How many milligrams of EPA/DHA were used in the dream study?*

A. 1,000mg

B. 2,000mg

C. 3,000mg

D. 4,000mg

12. Oral medications utilized for the treatment of dry eyes include all of the following except:*

A. Prednisone

B. Pilocarpine

C. Doxycycline

D. Omega 3 Fatty Acids

13. According to the Mackie classification for neurotrophic keratitis, Stage II is defined as:*

A. Characterized by hyperplasia and/or irregularity of the epithelium, evolving to punctate keratopathy, corneal edema, neovascularization, and stromal scarring.

B. Defined by a recurrent or persistent epithelial defects or a PED without stromal thinning

C. Stromal involvement leads to corneal ulcer, melting and perforation

D. Mild persistent epithelial erosions

14. __________ nervous system is a critical regulator of the lacrimal functional unit and a healthy tear film.*

A. Parasympathetic nervous system

B. Sympathetic nervous system

C. Central nervous system

D. Peripheral nervous system

15. What percent of basal tear production is due to inhaled air through the nasal passage?*

A. 24%

B. 34%

C. 44%

D. 54%

16. Amniotic membranes have all of the properties except?*

A. Anti-inflammatory

B. Anti-angiogenic

C. Anti-scarring

D. Anti-pyretic

17. Dry eye procedures currently represent _____% of all US dry eye revenue?*

A. 4%

B. 8%

C. 14%

D. 18%

18. What wavelength of light is used Intense Pulse Light treatments?*

A. X-ray

B. Gamma rays

C. Visible / infrared

D. Radiofrequency

19. Which of the following investigational agents for treating MGD targets the eradication of Demodex mites as its mechanism of action?*

A. AZR-MD-001

B. NOV03

C. Reproxolap

D. TP-03

20. Which was a primary efficacy finding of the phase 2 SEECASE study of NOV03 in patients with DED?*

A. Significant improvement in change of total corneal fluorescein staining (tCFS) score

B. Trend toward improvement in meibomian gland yielding liquid secretion

C. Reduction in collarettes

D. Trend toward improvement in patient-reported symptoms

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