TQ Quiz | Eye-1-1: Ocular Emergency and Trauma Grand Rounds (Pittsburgh 2025) by Events@optometricedu.com | Feb 14, 2025 | 2025 Pittsburgh, TQ Courses | 0 comments "*" indicates required fields This field is hidden when viewing the form@{:35}This field is hidden when viewing the formDate (Hidden) MM slash DD slash YYYY This field is hidden when viewing the formEvent Date (Hidden) MM slash DD slash YYYY This field is hidden when viewing the formEvent 90 days past date (Hidden) MM slash DD slash YYYY This field is hidden when viewing the formEvent Date Difference (Hidden)1. Which of the following clinical exam features is suggestive of penetrating trauma?* A - Elevated intraocular pressure B - Deep anterior chamber C - Peaked pupil D - Negative Seidel sign 2. Which of the following clinical exam features is consistent with retrobulbar hematoma (orbital compartment syndrome)?* A - Low intraocular pressure B - Normal pupil testing C - Enophthalmos D - Ophthalmoplegia 3. Which of the following surgical procedures is indicated in the management of retrobulbar hematoma (orbital compartment syndrome) and severely elevated intraocular pressure?* A - Lateral canthotomy B - Optic nerve sheath fenestration C - Blepharoplasty D - Laser peripheral iridotomy 4. Commotio retinae PRIMARILY involves disruption of which retinal layer?* A - Photoreceptors B - Nerve fiber layer C - Inner nuclear layer D - Ganglion cell layer 5. Which intraocular foreign body material is expected to cause the most severe inflammatory reaction?* A - Iron B - Glass C - Zinc D - Plaster 6. Which neuroimaging modality should be considered when a metallic intraorbital foreign body is suspected?* A - CT B - MRI C - Diffusion weighted imaging D - Angiography 7. Which of the following complications is LEAST LIKELY following blunt ocular trauma?* A - Angle recession B - Commotio retinae C - Choroidal rupture D - Corneal ectasia 8. The classic triad of presenting signs and symptoms in horner’s syndrome is:* A - 1) ptosis, 2) miosis, 3) anhidrosis B - 1) ptosis, 2) mydriasis, 3) anhidrosis C - 1) lid retraction, 2) miosis, 3) anhidrosis D - 1) ptosis, 2) miosis, 3) excess sweating 9. Which of the following pupillary findings is CONSISTENT with Horner syndrome?* A - Sluggish direct light response B - Light near dissociation C - Dilation lag (the degree of anisocoria is greater at 5 seconds after turning off the light compared to at 15 seconds) D - Relative afferent pupillary defect 10. Which topical medication can be used in-office to confirm the presence of a suspected horner’s syndrome?* A - Apraclonidine B - Timolol C - Latanoprost D - Dorzolamide 11. Which fundus feature is most consistent with a diagnosis of purtscher's retinopathy?* A - Pigment epithelial detachment B - White opaque areas or flecken of inner retinal infarction C - Optic disc edema D - Retinal arteriolar dilation 12. Which of the following late complications is most likely with choroidal rupture?* A - Choroidal neovascularization B - Neovascular glaucoma C - Corneal hydrops D - Vitreous hemorrhage 13. What is the typical location and shape of a choroidal rupture resulting from indirect blunt force trauma?* A - Posterior pole/peripapillary; concentric or crescent B - Peripheral; linear C - Posterior pole/peripapillary; linear D - Peripheral; concentric or crescent 14. In patients with hyphema, which systemic condition increases the risk of intraocular pressure elevation?* A - Sickle cell anemia B - Hypertension C - Rheumatoid arthritis D - Hypothyroidism 15. Consider the following different clinical presentations of hyphema resulting from blunt trauma listed below. In which scenario is referral for surgical evacuation MOST INDICATED?* A - Persistent intraocular pressure (IOP) elevation of 60mmHg despite maximum medical therapy B - Hyphema has decreased by 50% within 2 days C - Initial presentation of a microhyphema with 20/20 acuity and normal IOP D - An eye with 30% hyphema presenting with IOP of 35mmHg that lowers to 15mmHg with timolol twice daily 16. In an eye with 50% hyphema and intraocular pressure of 35mmHg, which topical treatment option is LEAST appropriate?* A - Pilocarpine B - Timolol C - Cyclopentolate D - Prednisolone 17. A patient presents the same day following blunt ocular trauma and is found to have 3 clock hours of commotio retinae located within the midperiphery. The macula is unaffected, acuity is 20/20, and no other ocular complications from blunt trauma are present. Which management option is most appropriate for this patient?* A - Observation B - Topical cyclopentolate C - Oral prednisolone D - Pars plana vitrectomy 18. Trauma to what facial region is most commonly associated with traumatic optic neuropathy?* A - Brow/frontal bone B - Nose C - Chin D - Ear 19. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding the time to OCT detectable nerve fiber layer (NFL) and ganglion cell complex (GCC) loss in eyes with indirect traumatic optic neuropathy?* A - Significant NFL and GCC loss is often detectable the day of the trauma B - NFL and GCC loss is often first detectable a few weeks following the trauma and plateaus within 3-4 months C - NFL and GCC loss does not occur at any time following traumatic optic neuropathy D - It typically takes up to 2 years for NFL and GCC loss to become evident post trauma 20. An otherwise healthy 30-year-old patient presents with a history of significant blunt trauma 2 years prior OD. Examination findings include the following:*• Uncorrected VA OD 20/20, OS 20/20 • Slit lamp examination: unremarkable OU • Intraocular pressure: OD 35mmHg, OS 15mmHg • Ophthalmoscopy: Asymmetric cupping with C/Ds of 0.6 OD and 0.3 OS. Otherwise unremarkable. Which additional test would be most valuable in the assessment of this patient? 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