TQ Quiz | Retinal Pathology to Retinal Practice (Detroit 2025)

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1. OCT angiography can be useful for evaluation of all but which of the following?*

A - Leakage pattern of choroidal neovascularization

B - Diabetic macular ischemia

C - Segmentation of the deep and superficial capillary plexus

D - Detection of choroidal neovascularization

2. Why is reticular pseudodrusen is important to identify?*

A - It is an indicator of potential progression to late stage AMD

B - It indicates the presence of a choroidal neovascular membrane

C - It is an indicator of retinal ischemia

D - It is an indicator of poor response to anti-VEGF agents

3. As identified by DRCR Protocol S, which of the following statements is true?*

A - Lucentis is associated with greater complications than PRP in proliferative diabetic retinopathy

B - Lucentis is not as effective as PRP in the treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

C - Lucentis is non-inferior to PRP in the treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

D - Avastin is more effective than PRP in the treatment of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

4. Which of the following is an advantage of fluorescein angiography (FA) as compared to OCT angiography (OCTA)?*

A - There is a greater risk of adverse event with OCTA

B - FA is less invasive than OCTA

C - FA may allow for a wider field of view than OCTA

D - OCTA includes a normative database

5. Based on the results of DRCR Protocol T, for patients with visual acuity worse than 20/50 due to diabetic macular edema, the most effective treatment in improving visual acuity is:*

A - Durysta

B - Lucentis

C - Eylea

D - Ozurdex

6. Which of the following diagnoses may benefit from treatment with an anti-VEGF agent?*

A - Center-involved diabetic macular edema

B - Optic atrophy

C - Peripheral neuralgia

D - Nuclear sclerosis

7. Which of the following ancillary tests is currently most useful for evaluating the necessity of re-treatment with anti-VEGF in neovascular macular degeneration?*

A - Fundus autofluorescence

B - OCT

C - OCTA

D - Fluorescein angiography

8. Vision loss in diabetes mellitus may occur due to all but which of the following?*

A - Diabetic macular edema

B - Macular ischemia

C - Optic disc collaterals

D - Proliferative diabetic retinopathy

9. Which of the following clinical findings is an indication for referral to a retinal surgeon for potential treatment after retinal vein occlusion?*

A - Collateral vessels

B - Dot hemorrhages along the superior arcade

C - Cystoid macular edema

D - Sclerotic retinal vessel superior nasal to the optic disc

10. Which of the following statements is true regarding microaneurysms?*

A - They may be visible on OCT, OCTA, and fluorescein angiography

B - They are most common in arteriole-based diseases, like hypertensive retinopathy

C - They are indicative of severe non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy

D - They are a common finding at the time of diagnosis in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus

11. An example of an exudative response to vascular insult is:*

A - Cotton wool spot

B - Retinal collateral vessel formation

C - Neovascularization

D - Intraretinal edema

12. All of the following are anti-VEGF agents, EXCEPT:*

A - Eylea

B - Lucentis

C - Iluvien

D - Avastin

13. Which of the following statements regarding diabetic retinopathy is true?*

A - The majority of patients with type one diabetes mellitus develop diabetic retinopathy within one year of diagnosis

B - Gestational diabetes mellitus represents a significant risk factor for the development of proliferative diabetic retinopathy

C - In the absence of diabetic retinopathy, patients with type two diabetes mellitus should undergo clinical examination every 2-3 years

D - Patients with type two diabetes mellitus who are insulin-dependent may be at greater risk for the development of diabetic retinopathy

14. Which of following is true regarding dot hemorrhages?*

A - They are apparent on OCTA

B - They are a direct result of exudation

C - They represent ruptured microaneurysms

D - They exhibit leakage on fluorescein angiography

15. What is the name of bispecific antibody which targets Ang-2 and VEGF-A?*

A - Faricimab

B - Ranibizumab

C - Teprotumumab

D - Bevacizumab

16. Contraindications to use of Eylea (aflibercept) include:*

A - Previous ocular surgery

B - Active intraocular inflammation

C - Cataract

D - Hyperopia

17. Activation of the complement system ultimately leads to which cellular process?*

A - Apoptosis

B - Mitosis

C - Respiration

D - Transcription

18. Syfovre (pegcetacoplan) is FDA approved for the treatment of:*

A - Neovascular AMD

B - Geographic atrophy

C - Intermediate stage non-exudative AMD

D - Cystoid macular edema

19. Advantages of smaller molecule anti-VEGF agents include:*

A - Higher systemic exposure

B - Slower clearance

C - Improved tissue penetration

D - Greater likelihood of IOP increase

20. Retinal ischemic perivascular lesions (RIPLs) represent:*

A - Ruptured microaneurysms

B - A biomarker of ischemic cardiovascular disease

C - A risk factor for the development of geographic atrophy

D - Markers of high likelihood of response to anti-VEGF therapy

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