TQ Quiz | Clinical Case Discussions in Glaucoma Management (Detroit 2025)

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1. Which of the following statements about primary open angle glaucoma is true?*

A - It is a progressive, chronic optic neuropathy

B - It is elevated intraocular pressure

C - It is an uncommon cause of functional vision loss

D - It is a condition characterized by the presence of angle recession

2. What is the primary mechanism of action of rho-kinase inhibitors?*

A - Increased uveoscleral outflow

B - Decreased aqueous production

C - Increased trabecular outflow

D - Increased episcleral venous pressure

3. Which procedure is necessary for the diagnosis of primary open angle glaucoma?*

A - Gonioscopy

B - Pachymetry

C - Retinal nerve fiber layer analysis

D - Corneal hysteresis

4. Which visual field testing pattern is preferred in the evaluation of a patient with glaucoma?*

A - 20-5

B - 24-2

C - 30-2

D - N-30

5. Which of the following visual field defects may be expected for a patient with a superior temporal notch in the neuroretinal rim?*

A - Enlarged blind spot

B - Inferior nasal step

C - Superior arcuate scotoma

D - No visual field defect is expected

6. Which of the following is a unique adverse effect of netarsudil?*

A - Conjunctival hyperemia

B - Corneal verticillata

C - Reduction in pulse rate

D - Increase in pupil diameter

7. Anterior segment OCT is most useful to determine:*

A - If the angle is open or closed

B - The most posterior angle structure

C - The presence of a Sampaolesi line

D - The location of collector channels

8. What is the preferred method to evaluate the optic disc in the evaluation of glaucoma*

A - Binocular indirect ophthalmoscopy

B - Optical coherence tomography

C - Direct ophthalmoscopy

D - Slit lamp fundus biomicroscopy

9. What is the intended purpose of the COAST trial?*

A - To demonstrate that SLT is more effective than medical therapy in reducing IOP in eyes with open angle glaucoma

B - To investigate the optimal energy level and frequency of laser therapy to treat glaucoma

C - To evaluate the duration of effect of a single SLT procedure

D - To assess the impact of SLT on quality of life in comparison to topical medical therapy

10. Which of the following findings is an expected effect of a topical ophthalmic prostaglandin analog?*

A - Widening of the palpebral fissure

B - Slowed heart rate

C - Conjunctival hyperemia

D - Corneal verticillata

11. Which of the following represents an appropriate medication combination for glaucoma therapy (e.g. no duplications of medications or classes)?*

A - Cosopt and timolol

B - Simbrinza and brimonidine

C - Latanoprost and Vyzulta

D - Vyzulta and brimonidine

12. Diagnosis of primary angle closure suspect is correctly characterized by:*

A - Inability to visualize posterior trabecular meshwork in at least 180 degrees without peripheral anterior synechiae and without elevated intraocular pressure

B - No visualization of angle structures with intraocular pressure >27mmHg

C - Ratio between the peripheral anterior chamber depth and corneal thickness of <1:1/2 using the Van Herick technique

D - Trabecular-iris angle of <10 degrees measured on anterior chamber OCT

13. What is the mechanism of laser peripheral iridotomy (LPI) in the management of primary angle closure glaucoma?*

A - To reverse or prevent pupil block

B - To increase anterior chamber depth

C - To prevent glaucomatous optic neuropathy

D - To increase uveoscleral outflow

14. All of the following features are relevant to determining a target IOP, EXCEPT:*

A - Age

B - Disease severity

C - Peak, untreated IOP

D - Presence of dry eye disease

15. Benzodiazepine use is a relative contraindication for patients with which condition?*

A - Primary open angle glaucoma

B - Glaucomatocyclitic crisis

C - Primary angle closure

D - Pigmentary glaucoma

16. Ideally, how many IOP readings should be gathered prior to making a treatment decision?*

A - One

B - Three

C - As many as it takes until the IOP is greater than 21mmHg

D - IOP is not relevant to therapeutic decision making in glaucoma

17. How does the 24-2C visual field test pattern differ from the 24-2 pattern?*

A - There is a greater distance between test points in the 24-2C pattern

B - There are an additional 10 paracentral test points in the 24-2C pattern

C - The stimulus size is larger in the 24-2C pattern

D - There is a wider area of the visual field tested in the 24-2C pattern

18. How do central corneal thickness values impact clinical management?*

A - Thin central corneal thickness is a risk factor for development of glaucoma in patients with ocular hypertension

B - Intraocular pressure measurements should be adjusted based on central corneal thickness measurements

C - Central corneal thickness measurements are only valid if determine by ultrasound pachymetry

D - Central corneal thickness measurements do not impact clinical management

19. Maximally tolerated medical therapy is best described as:*

A - One bottle of medication

B - Two bottles of medication

C - Three bottles of medication

D - The maximum number of medications that an individual can tolerate

20. Low vision consultation for patients with functional vision loss due to glaucoma is most effective:*

A - Following bilateral loss of central fixation

B - When constriction of visual field encroaches within 5 degrees of fixation

C - Early in the course of disease

D - When patients no longer meet visual requirements for driving

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